i realize that when the server has only one physical IP for its websites that it can only have one anonymous FTP account but my question is just requiring a bit of clarity on this. I did some testing just to better understand whats happening behind the scenes and it seems that i have 1 client, 2 sites. each site is checked to have an anonymous ftp account ( i understand only one of them actually will as they are both hosted on the same IP address ) but am i correct in saying that if i had another IP address available for the second site that it would receive its own ftp folder for anonymous connections? lastly i realize that those 2 previously mentioned sites share (technically) one IP address and thus, share an anonymous FTP account however only one of the websites actually houses the ftp folder in this case, web1. web2 doesnt contain an ftp folder. So if that is true ( which for my purposes is fine ) if the owner of web1 told his client to login anon would be taking to web1/ftp and web2, if he told his client to login anon would also be taken to web1/ftp . now this does pose a bit of a security issue but like i said its fine for me. I again just need to be clear that this is whats happening and i hope that in the future versions of ISPConfig that anonymous connections to websites once that one available anon connection is filled wont be allowed to the other websites.